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Help[Opinions] Re: Thomasine (ETA)
in reply to a message by Lily8
Thomasine ("tom-uh-SEEN") and Thomasina ("tom-uh-SEE-nuh") are delightful. They would make charming mns. But I'd really love to see them as a fn -- more gutsy.
A variant is Tamsin ("TAM-sin"), but I don't like it nearly as much.
ETA:
I have two guesses as to why the "h" is silent in Thomas / Thomasine / Thomasina. But it's only a guess.
(A) I am listening to a series of lectures on the English language; one of those college courses that's been put on CD. According to the lecturer, English scribes for the king beginning around the time of the Norman invasion (1066-ish) had a set way of spelling words. Pronunciations changed wildly over time, but the spellings remained the same. That's why we still spell the number 1 as "one," etc.
Standardized spellings (or even education) were not the case with ordinary citizens, authors, publishers, etc. It wasn't until the 18th century that the encyclopedias / dictionaries began to regularize spelling for the masses. But the governmental spellings almost never varied.
At least this is what the lecturer contends. So if that's true, then Thomas may have been pronounced differently long ago, but the spelling remained the same.
(B) The French Normans brought the "Th-" already pronounced like "t." There was never a change.
Just random guesses though. You should try posting this question on the Name Facts board. If you're lucky, ClevelandKentEvans will answer. He knows so much more than anyone else, other than BtN site owner Mike.
A variant is Tamsin ("TAM-sin"), but I don't like it nearly as much.
ETA:
I have two guesses as to why the "h" is silent in Thomas / Thomasine / Thomasina. But it's only a guess.
(A) I am listening to a series of lectures on the English language; one of those college courses that's been put on CD. According to the lecturer, English scribes for the king beginning around the time of the Norman invasion (1066-ish) had a set way of spelling words. Pronunciations changed wildly over time, but the spellings remained the same. That's why we still spell the number 1 as "one," etc.
Standardized spellings (or even education) were not the case with ordinary citizens, authors, publishers, etc. It wasn't until the 18th century that the encyclopedias / dictionaries began to regularize spelling for the masses. But the governmental spellings almost never varied.
At least this is what the lecturer contends. So if that's true, then Thomas may have been pronounced differently long ago, but the spelling remained the same.
(B) The French Normans brought the "Th-" already pronounced like "t." There was never a change.
Just random guesses though. You should try posting this question on the Name Facts board. If you're lucky, ClevelandKentEvans will answer. He knows so much more than anyone else, other than BtN site owner Mike.
This message was edited 4/13/2009, 10:58 AM
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