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Help[Facts] abrahamic names
Ever since discovering the etymology of the deity's name El (the head of a pantheon, not a one true, according to Behindthename), I've wondered about the many names in the Bible (, Torah and Qur'an, presumably)that either begin or end in -el as opposed to some prefix or suffix based on the name "Yahweh" (or "Allah" or some other name specifically referring to the God of Abraham). I wonder if there's a way to tell what a name means just by looking. I thought maybe -iel vs -ael vs -uel might make a difference. It seems not (some -iels mean "of power" - el means power - whereas I have read that Daniel, for example, means "'God' is my judge" as opposed to "judge of 'God'"). Does anyone else notice connections between -ael names (MichAEL) vs -uel names (EmmanUEL)? My other big issue with these names is Yahweh vs El, Matit[yahu]/Matthew (gift of Yahweh/God)vs Nathaniel (given by El/power/a god). Can anyone explain that to me?
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These interpretations are indeed debated, at least with GABRIEL. But the I istself has nothing to do with this.
"God's man (or maybe hero)" is a possible meaning (although the word for man/hero is GEVER; GABR indicates another grammatical form which for instanstance serves as the basis of GABRI, "my man"). "God's man" in Hebrew is GVAR-EL.
But as I said, vowels are pretty unstable, and this does leave room for interpretation. The I in GABRIEL however either means "my" or else is meaningless.
"God's man (or maybe hero)" is a possible meaning (although the word for man/hero is GEVER; GABR indicates another grammatical form which for instanstance serves as the basis of GABRI, "my man"). "God's man" in Hebrew is GVAR-EL.
But as I said, vowels are pretty unstable, and this does leave room for interpretation. The I in GABRIEL however either means "my" or else is meaningless.
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Using the "i" = of/from rationale, Gabri would mean "He-man of (me)" with "me" being implied (in the absence of another objective owner). "He-man of me" would translate to "my he-man."
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Now I understand what you mean. The I then would include not only "of" but also "me" and then mean "my".
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That is seen in the "nissi" part of one of God's names in the Bible, YHVH-nissi.
See https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H3071&t=KJV
See https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H3071&t=KJV
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A lot of questions.
In Hebrew (and I think in Semitic languages in general), you don't have to worry much about vowels. Vowels change, vowels come and go – it's the consonants that count. They are pretty stable and only they were written out for a long time.
So names ending in -iel, -ael or -uel should not be looked upon as opposed to each other in some way.
-IEL: The I may have a meaning, or it may not. It can indicate the possessive form 1st person singular "my", or it can ba a vowel that fills in for phonetic reasons. So GABRIEL can translate either "God is my hero / God has proven strong in my favour" or else "God is strong / has proven strong". Same with DANIEL: "God has vindivated me" or "God vindicates". With NATANIEL the I seems to be inserted for phonetical reasons to smoothen the pronounciation.
-AEL: The A can be due to different grammatical issues. Take RAPHAEL: "God has healed"; here the A is the last vowel in the "ordinary form" (pa'al or qal) 3. ps. sg.: rafa. Or MICHAEL "Who is like God?"; here I am not sure. I assume that the A is part of the definite article ha (in this case the h is swallowed by the preposition ke: ke + ha = ka)
-UEL: The origin of SAMUEL is debated. Traditionally it is associated with the verb shama', listen; however one must ask, where the final Ayin has disappeared to. Then it may translate "shem is god"; but there seems to be little evidence for a deity called shem. Another proposal is "descendant of El" (cf. 1Sam 24, 22). In neither case I can see any grammatical reason for the U, so again I assume phonetical reasons. This is not the case with IMMANUEL, "God with us". The preposition IM, with, becomes IMMANU with the 1st person pl. ending -ANU, so this is the reason for the U. There are quite a few names in the Bible ending in -UEL, but apart from IMMANUEL I can't see any grammatical reasons for this.
Maybe someone who knows Hebrew better than I can say more about these things.
In Hebrew (and I think in Semitic languages in general), you don't have to worry much about vowels. Vowels change, vowels come and go – it's the consonants that count. They are pretty stable and only they were written out for a long time.
So names ending in -iel, -ael or -uel should not be looked upon as opposed to each other in some way.
-IEL: The I may have a meaning, or it may not. It can indicate the possessive form 1st person singular "my", or it can ba a vowel that fills in for phonetic reasons. So GABRIEL can translate either "God is my hero / God has proven strong in my favour" or else "God is strong / has proven strong". Same with DANIEL: "God has vindivated me" or "God vindicates". With NATANIEL the I seems to be inserted for phonetical reasons to smoothen the pronounciation.
-AEL: The A can be due to different grammatical issues. Take RAPHAEL: "God has healed"; here the A is the last vowel in the "ordinary form" (pa'al or qal) 3. ps. sg.: rafa. Or MICHAEL "Who is like God?"; here I am not sure. I assume that the A is part of the definite article ha (in this case the h is swallowed by the preposition ke: ke + ha = ka)
-UEL: The origin of SAMUEL is debated. Traditionally it is associated with the verb shama', listen; however one must ask, where the final Ayin has disappeared to. Then it may translate "shem is god"; but there seems to be little evidence for a deity called shem. Another proposal is "descendant of El" (cf. 1Sam 24, 22). In neither case I can see any grammatical reason for the U, so again I assume phonetical reasons. This is not the case with IMMANUEL, "God with us". The preposition IM, with, becomes IMMANU with the 1st person pl. ending -ANU, so this is the reason for the U. There are quite a few names in the Bible ending in -UEL, but apart from IMMANUEL I can't see any grammatical reasons for this.
Maybe someone who knows Hebrew better than I can say more about these things.
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